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A polite discussion of religion, sin and civil rights

batts I'm writing to explain why the older generation viewed homosexuality as something that should be shunned and avoided. Before you condemn our generation, you should understand that we are merely a product of the times we grew up in. We were raised in the 50s, 60s, and 70s when homosexuality was viewed as a deviant practice, a sin and in many instances a crime. We were taught by our parents, the schools, the Church and society at large that homosexuality was an evil and sinful practice. It wasn't until the 1980s or so that we first began to learn that there were other enlightened viewpoints out there, and that homosexuals were just like the rest of us except only that they had different sexual feelings. In recent years, I have become totally accepting of our gay citizens and would hope that they are not treated differently based on the old prejudices that were instilled in us during our upbringing. By the same token, however, I preach patience and tolerance for those who have not yet overcome the prejudices of their upbringing.. Hopefully, they will some day come around and develop total acceptance.


This is a balanced post. I do not subscribe to all its points, however. We should all accept and treat every person in the way we would want to be treated (Jesus' golden rule).


I agree homosexual behavior should never have been a crime. That said, IMHO some behaviors are, biologically at least, more deviant and --- to my mind --- more selfish than others. Yet, as Batts said, NO difference of opinion justifies or should encourage the intolerance or mistreatment of anyone. Period.
 
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Piratz This is the essence of a progressive society, in general. Change is always generational.


Only 51 years ago our great country disenfranchised their fellow Americans from basic rights of liberty because of the color of our skin. It was 86 years ago that women couldn't vote. Heck, at one point people thought the Earth was flat!


IMHO this looks like a non-sequitur---at least the part about the flat-earth obviously is.

That said, should there not be a distinction between treatment of others based on behavior versus that based on who they are?
 
catholicman, Tuesday at 8:36 AM . It amazes me that Judeo-Christian moral teachings are so easily dismissed. Countless posts can be made calling them bigotry, unenlightened, etc. As soon as any serious intellectual disagreement is mounted, the thread gets locked. That, my brothers, is intolerance.


I will pray for Derrick and wish him no ill-will. But the movement and lifestyle he has aligned himself with is evil. I hope that his time at Seton Hall will be good for his soul. But it seems more and more apparent that the school as an institution has lost its moorings.


Four separate points:

1. Many Millennials have been raised using what in the 1960s was termed the "New Morality" under which anything which does not hurt someone else is OK. Many of us Boomers conclude that that New Morality is flawed and dangerous. But it was the Boomers who raised the Gen-Xers and the Gen-Xers who raised the Millennials so the chickens do come home to roost. 4,000 years of anything can become virtually meaningless if the first four years of life do not experience their import. There is hope for everyone to seek and learn on their own at maturity but, alas, that deck is stacked against most.


2. It does seem today that the only statements which justify intolerance are statements of traditional religious belief. The First Amendment might be in jeopardy of repeal.


3. In today's vernacular I fear that words like "evil" and "sin" have been unjustifiably consigned to the trash heap of "superstition". That said, such new taboos probably make their use counterproductive.


4. Our basketball players are sanctioned representatives of our school. As such the school does have the right and duty to expect that their public behavior and statements should not be contrary to the school's Catholic mission. While I do believe as a Catholic institution we do have the legal right to choose our representatives based on their concurrence with our Catholic principles, IMHO recruiting "basketball" representatives who do not flout their divergences is not indicative that the school has lost its moorings.
 
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Halldan1, Tuesday at 9:02 AM Thank you for reminding me why I grow more and more intolerant of religious beliefs as I get older. Derrick Gordon and his lifestyle is none of anyone's business. And that includes the Catholic Church. .

Your self-confessed "intolerance" seems to flout the First Amendment, does it not? You seem to be saying that religious rights should no longer be protected. Is this what you meant?
 
TheBluePirate, Tuesday at 9:03 AM . C-man - lepers were shunned as evil sinners but we finally figured out it was not a choice or a lifestyle. But the verses in the bible were not rewritten to reflect this evolved understanding. However, do you still teach rigidly that lepers are evil sinners and unclean?


In the matter of LGBT, science is consistently confirming the overwhelming genetic basis for a wide variation in gender (not to mention the obvious - that this occurs all across natural creation). This is not lifestyle or choice. It is rather sad - you see moral decay - I see a chance to remove falsely placed so-called moral supremacy (the tyranny of old incorrect words, making them far more important than the central message of love).


five things:

1. The Bible taught that lepers were to avoid society but the Mosaic law prescribed that for health, not moral, reasons. There are passages which quote individuals who obviously are confused about whether disease is a punishment from God for sins unknown but to my knowledge that was never espoused in Judaism. I am certain it was never Catholic doctrine.

2. If one were to believe that the Bible is inspired by the Holy Spirit then no human --- cleric or lay --- would have the right to change it. That is how evils like Fascism begin to evolve. That said, the Catholic Church does explain the context of most confusing verses, if one takes the time to listen. Kant rightly advised that one culture should not judge another culture by its own standards. I would argue that humanity like humans must traverse the very similar stages in their respective life-cycles.

3. When you say "science is consistently confirming the overwhelming genetic basis for a wide variation in gender" I hope that you do mean "gender" and not "same gender attraction". If not please cite even one example of a scientific study that indicates a genetic basis for same-sex attraction. In my reading I have become aware of none that do.

4. You say that " ....this occurs all across natural creation). This is not lifestyle or choice." I assume by "this" you mean homosexual behavior. Would you not agree that the human brain has reasoning power unique in nature and that such reasoning should help one to choose which 'natural impulses' to follow and which to dismiss?

5. You say: "I see a chance to remove falsely placed so-called moral supremacy (the tyranny of old incorrect words...." Please explain which morals and why you think they are "false". By "supremacy" are you indicating the simple comparative value of the morals? Or are you implying some bellicose "high-ground" advantage to be exploited? I take it that when you say "old incorrect words" you are speaking of some part of the Bible. Is that right? Can you please be more specific?


Thanks!
 
....I also commend all those who have joined in a respectful manner.....Like the US where we try to come back to the basic principles of the constitution, the Church is also trying to come back to the basic message of Jesus Christ and all the hope and freedom it provides. My point is that we need not wait for the Church to get everything right. We can discover the fundamentals ourselves and then decide how we want to live.

Perhaps we can help the Church instead of fighting it.

Go Pirates!


Thanks for the insights, Pirata!
 
If I were a caterer who had catered several events for a particular man, and all seemed happy, does anyone think it would be illegal discrimination on my part if I were to decline to participate as the caterer for that man's marriage to another man in a state where so-called same-sex "marriage" was for now permitted? As background, The Catholic Church forbids practicing Catholics even to attend such a ceremony.

Thoughts?
 
I thought Hobby Lobby covered Religious exemptions from Obamacare for lay-owned businesses, no?
 
Yes that is true. The underlying argument in the SCOTUS ruling is applicable and a legal precedent.
 
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I am sure that Hobby Lobby will be cited in the briefs but I suspect the plaintiffs will continue to complain and the Justices will be required to review and on any given Monday....

The question remains, is the religious freedom that nations went to civil war over still relevant in today's "Me" culture?
 
3. When you say "science is consistently confirming the overwhelming genetic basis for a wide variation in gender" I hope that you do mean "gender" and not "same gender attraction". If not please cite even one example of a scientific study that indicates a genetic basis for same-sex attraction. In my reading I have become aware of none that do.

Please cite the "science" for us, TheBluePirate. Peer reviewed periodicals only, please. Last I read, the twin concordance studies failed to prove a genetic basis for homosexuality. Now you're saying that there is evidence that some middle ground between XX and XY -- a "wide" one, at that -- has been "confirmed." One life scientist here, eagerly awaiting your response.
 
If I were a caterer who had catered several events for a particular man, and all seemed happy, does anyone think it would be illegal discrimination on my part if I were to decline to participate as the caterer for that man's marriage to another man in a state where so-called same-sex "marriage" was for now permitted? As background, The Catholic Church forbids practicing Catholics even to attend such a ceremony.

Thoughts?

It depends on the state and how they define public accomodations and if they have a law preventing discrimination based on sexual orientation.
I don't know of all state laws but after a brief google search, what you described would at least be illegal in Oregon... maybe more states?

Personally I do not think they should be allowed to refuse to provide food if requested but I would prefer that the caterer would have the ability to refuse attendance.
 
It depends on the state and how they define public accomodations and if they have a law preventing discrimination based on sexual orientation.
I don't know of all state laws but after a brief google search, what you described would at least be illegal in Oregon... maybe more states?

Personally I do not think they should be allowed to refuse to provide food if requested but I would prefer that the caterer would have the ability to refuse attendance.

I agree that plaintiffs in certain states have argued that this is a civil rights violation, but I whole-heartedly disagree. You seem to agree with the plaintiff's legal interpretation, Merge, when you say: "I do not think they should be allowed to refuse to provide food if requested but I would prefer that the caterer would have the ability to refuse attendance". You draw a distinction between the food and attendance at the ceremony. In a same-sex civil union I strongly suspect that the "ceremony" would not be in a church and that it most likely would occur in the same venue as the reception. In either event, I would argue that catering a marriage service would religiously be construed as "support" and therefore subject to the same religious grounds for avoidance.

But first on the civil law side, how can one construe that I am acting with prejudice toward the individual's personal civil rights if --- as hypothecated ---- I had served him repeatedly in other circumstances?

Then to me it is clearly not a "civil rights" question. I have demonstrated that I have NO PROBLEM with that individual.

If I then choose to refuse my support of a particular behavior of that man, should that not be my right under both/either the "freedom of speech" and/or "freedom to practice religion" amendments?

How about the case where a Catholic group plans a televised "Pro Life" event and it seeks to have it catered by a company operated by the daughter of the president of the local Planned Parenthood Association. Is that daughter legally obligated to cater the Pro-Life rally? (She could claim only the "free speech" protection, it seems to me.)

Should American citizens be "commercially" forced under law to attend and support any meeting which that citizen does not agree with in principle?

If you believe that is not a violation of free speech, in those stated circumstances would the customer have legal grounds to seek a court order to force me and my staff to not carry placards at the event denouncing the "behavior" I oppose?
 
I think a distiction can be made between providing a service and supporting. I don't qualify providing food as support. It may be indirect support just as if you were a contractor who built the venue, the farmer who raised the animals or grew the vegetables, you would be indirectly supporting the wedding.

I can see where a Catholic would feel that they can not attend a wedding of a same sex couple. I would respect their desire to not attend the event.
In all honesty, a reasonable couple would move on to their next option if they were told that the owner does not support their marriage.

I don't think anyone should be forced to attend any event they do not agree with which again is why I think a distinction can be made between support and providing service.

Then to me it is clearly not a "civil rights" question. I have demonstrated that I have NO PROBLEM with that individual.

I don't think it is that easy. As a service provider, you need to comply with state laws. If your state says you may not discriminate based on sexual orientation then I think you have the duty to provide your service. It would be similar if you were against interracial marriage and had been providing service to a black man. You are not allowed to discriminate based on age, sex, race and in some states sexual orientation.
 
I would think this is different than racial discrimination as no legitimate church says mixed race marriage is a sin. I assume the decision in OAs example is based on religious doctrine, not personal preference.
 
I would think this is different than racial discrimination as no legitimate church says mixed race marriage is a sin. I assume the decision in OAs example is based on religious doctrine, not personal preference.

Indeed although in some states it is the law that businesses may not discriminate based on sexual orientation. Religious groups are exempt from those laws but private businesses are not. A business is not a religious entity even though the owner may be, and does not have the right to impose the owners religion (in this case by discrimination) onto the public.
 
Mostly, I give to Obama what is Obama's and I give to God what is God's so I never really understood how my religious rights were violated when I served someone who religiously offended me.

Overall, this seems like an academic exercise. I can choose not to serve whomever I wish, though it would be wise not to say something so obvious as to invite discrimination charges. At the same time, suing me is a waste of time and resources. More logical is to do what everyone else does - find someone willing to serve me and write a terrible review on Yelp.
 
I think a distiction can be made between providing a service and supporting. I don't qualify providing food as support. It may be indirect support just as if you were a contractor who built the venue, the farmer who raised the animals or grew the vegetables, you would be indirectly supporting the wedding.


I can see where a Catholic would feel that they can not attend a wedding of a same sex couple. I would respect their desire to not attend the event.


Well for Catholics there is a very specific list of criteria the Church uses to determine "participation". It might or might not meet with your approval. Nonetheless it is Church rules and must/is expected to be followed.


AND if the Catholic Church has specific rules that say actions required by a law are "wrong" or "sinful" then there should definitely be a "religious freedom" exclusion (a'la Hobby Lobby).




In all honesty, a reasonable couple would move on to their next option if they were told that the owner does not support their marriage.


That's part of my problem with the plaintiffs. There are scores of vendors to choose from. Why flaunt your petulant flouting?


....I don't think anyone should be forced to attend any event they do not agree with which again is why I think a distinction can be made between support and providing service.


See above


I don't think it is that easy. As a service provider, you need to comply with state laws. If your state says you may not discriminate based on sexual orientation then I think you have the duty to provide your service. It would be similar if you were against interracial marriage and had been providing service to a black man. You are not allowed to discriminate based on age, sex, race and in some states sexual orientation.


So here's the rub:

You say: " you may not discriminate based on sexual orientation."

In this case I would have worked for the same guy many times before, so I have proven I am not discriminating against his "sexual orientation". Therefore to me it is patently clear that my reluctance now MUST be based on "something else", i.e. religiously objectionable albeit legal behavior.
 
Mostly, I give to Obama what is Obama's and I give to God what is God's so I never really understood how my religious rights were violated when I served someone who religiously offended me.

Overall, this seems like an academic exercise. I can choose not to serve whomever I wish, though it would be wise not to say something so obvious as to invite discrimination charges. At the same time, suing me is a waste of time and resources. More logical is to do what everyone else does - find someone willing to serve me and write a terrible review on Yelp.


The whole point of this is that a commercial businessman may NOT legally "choose not to serve whomever (he) wish(es)."
 
Indeed although in some states it is the law that businesses may not discriminate based on sexual orientation. Religious groups are exempt from those laws but private businesses are not. A business is not a religious entity even though the owner may be, and does not have the right to impose the owners religion (in this case by discrimination) onto the public.

It is my understanding that the Supreme Court's Hobby Lobby ruling disagrees with you. The business of "Hobby Lobby" was not required to follow the Obamacare rules and offer insurance that covers contraceptives and abortives BECAUSE its owner had religious objections.,
 
The whole point of this is that a commercial businessman may NOT legally "choose not to serve whomever (he) wish(es)."

That is not entirely true. I can choose not to serve anyone. The point at issue is discrimination.
 
Well for Catholics there is a very specific list of criteria the Church uses to determine "participation". It might or might not meet with your approval. Nonetheless it is Church rules and must/is expected to be followed.

Can you post how the church defines participation?

n this case I would have worked for the same guy many times before, so I have proven I am not discriminating against his "sexual orientation". Therefore to me it is patently clear that my reluctance now MUST be based on "something else", i.e. religiously objectionable albeit legal behavior.

As a member of the public, they would be allowed access to the business offerings by private companies.

I see your distinction but I don't think it is enough to allow you to deny service.
 
It is my understanding that the Supreme Court's Hobby Lobby ruling disagrees with you. The business of "Hobby Lobby" was not required to follow the Obamacare rules and offer insurance that covers contraceptives and abortives BECAUSE its owner had religious objections.,

That case is a little different.
A business was challenging that the federal government can not make a law which voilates their religious beliefs.

The equivalent would be a challenge to the supreme court that states do not have the right to prevent discrimination based on sexual orientation based on religious views.

Being forced to provide something you don't believe in is different than being forced to provide your businesses service to someone who's behaviour is against your relgion.
 
I would think this is different than racial discrimination as no legitimate church says mixed race marriage is a sin. I assume the decision in OAs example is based on religious doctrine, not personal preference.

BINGO!

Why are people treated as having inalienable rights? Because the Catholic Church taught western societies the basic truth that each soul is sacred because it is made in the image of God. The policy that every citizen has certain "inalienable rights" is not a belief found in virtually any other type of society in the history of man.

Has the Church taught that anything else is sacred? Yes! Among them are the body and its purpose and functions --- including sex.

IMHO the USSC will not force a Catholic to do anything which the Catholic Church defines as sinful.
 
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That case is a little different.

A business was challenging that the federal government can not make a law which voilates their religious beliefs.


No difference IMHO.


The equivalent would be a challenge to the supreme court that states do not have the right to prevent discrimination based on sexual orientation based on religious views.


I disagree. If the law required citizens to perform some "act" that was what you here term "discrimination" and it were to violate the rules of a religion, then IMHO the Courts would void it.


In any event, that is NOT what the hypothetical depicts. If a merchant has repeatedly served a particular homosexual customer as she would any other, then by definition that merchant does not discriminate "based on (that customer's) sexual orientation." To me that is intuitive. If then the merchant were to refuse service for a special reason then ipso facto that merchant is "discriminating" based on some other reason.



Being forced to provide something you don't believe in is different than being forced to provide your businesses service to someone who's behaviour is against your relgion.


May a merchant eject a loud and disorderly patron based on his behavior?

May a merchant eject a smelly, unbathed patron based on a lack of good behavior in his toilet?

May a merchant eject an incredibly awkward patron who continually knocks over other patrons' tables based on his behavior?

I would bet all these are legal----based on a patron's behavior.

And this is why they have horse races.
 
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That is not entirely true. I can choose not to serve anyone. The point at issue is discrimination.

And if you are sued you had better have a logical, objective, time-honored reason other than that you don't like the person.
 
Nope. The fact this is beyond your grasp amuses me.

If you believe that God can do the antithetical then you have never read Thomas Aquinas or any other Catholic theologian --- and "the fact this is beyond your grasp amuses me."



LINK
 
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If you believe that God can do the antithetical then you have never read Thomas Aquinas or any other Catholic theologian --- and "the fact this is beyond your grasp amuses me."

LINK

I would give a more specific reply but alas you edited your post that included the phrase "is there anything God cannot do" in order to try and make yourself appear better. Editing is indeed a human trait.
 
I would give a more specific reply but alas you edited your post that included the phrase "is there anything God cannot do" in order to try and make yourself appear better. Editing is indeed a human trait.

Yes, Knowknow, I did edit and delete most of my earlier post from which you took the question about what can't God do. I did so because upon reading it, myself, I felt it read more strident than I had intended. I guess I was tired. In any event, as it seems important to you, I shall try to reconstruct it here:
"Is there anything God cannot do?" Yes! God cannot do the antithetical. He cannot make a "square circle". Neither can he make a "marriage" from two people of the same sex because His definition of "marriage" is the joining of one man and one woman in a sacred union in which they become one.
I hope that sates your appetite. BTW did you notice the LINK included on my first response to your first question on this?

BTW I did edit it, as you say, "in order to try and make (my)self appear better." The initial post read, as I said, too strident for the message I had hoped to convey. But FWIW I did delete it BEFORE I even noticed your question. That's just another problem with my verbose posts. My apologies.

And, yes, ''Editing is indeed a human trait.'' That is why they put erasers on pencils.
 
Can you post how the church defines participation?

Quick search turned up this link.

Catholic COM said:
Emphasis /edits for clarity:
To formally cooperate in the sin of another is to be associated with him in the performance of a bad deed in so far forth as it is bad, that is, to share in the perverse frame of mind of that other. On the contrary, to materially cooperate in another's crime is to participate in the action so far as its physical entity is concerned, but not in so far as it is motived by the malice of the principal in the case. For example, to persuade another to absent himself without reason from Mass on Sunday would be an instance of formal cooperation. To sell a person in an ordinary business transaction a revolver which he presently uses to kill himself is a case of material cooperation. Then it must be borne in mind that the cooperation may be described as proximate or remote in proportion to the closeness of relation between the action of the principal and that of his helper. The teaching with regard to this subject matter is very plain, and may be stated in this wise: Formal cooperation is never lawful, since it presupposes a manifestly sinful attitude on the part of the will of the accomplice. Material complicity is held to be justified when it is brought about by an action which is in itself either morally good or at any rate indifferent, and when there is a sufficient reason for permitting on the part of another the sin which is a consequence of the action. The reason for this assertion is patent; for the action of the accomplice is assumed to be unexceptionable, his intention is already bespoken to be proper, and he cannot be burdened with the sin of the principal agent, since there is supposed to be a commensurately weighty reason for not preventing it. Practically, however, it is often difficult to apply these principles, because it is hard to determine whether the cooperation is formal or only material, and also whether the reason alleged for a case of material cooperation bears due proportion to the grievousness of the sin committed by the principal, and the intimacy of the association with him. It is especially the last-named factor which is a fruitful source of perplexity. In general, however, the following considerations will be of value in discerning whether in an instance of material cooperation the reason avowed is valid or not. The necessity for a more and more powerful reason is accentuated in proportion as there is (I) a greater likelihood that the sin would not be committed without the act of material cooperation; (2) a closer relationship between the two; and (3) a greater seriousness in the sin, especially in regard to harm done either to the common weal or some un offending third party. It is to be observed that, when damage has been done to a third person, the question is raised not only of the lawfulness of the cooperation, but also of restitution to be made for the violation of a strict right. Whether in that case the accomplice has shared in the perpetration of the injustice physically or morally (i.e. by giving a command, by persuasion, etc.) whether positively or negatively (i.e. by failing to prevent it) the obligation of restitution is determined in accordance with the following principle. All are bound to reparation who in any way are accounted to be the actual efficient causes of the injury wrought, or who, being obliged by contract, express or implied, to prevent it, have not done so. There are circumstances in which fellowship in the working of damage to another makes the accomplice liable to restitution in solidum; that is, he is then responsible for the entire loss in so far as his partners have failed to make good for their share.

I realize that posting such legalese will probably only exacerbate the feelings of resentment some have for the Church's formality and structure, but, alas, IMHO almost all legal documents sound stilted. By trying to prevent confusion the authors often create more confusion in the non-lawyers by using hypotheticals and permutations.

I have not read any pronouncements specific to vendors and same-sex unions.
 
No difference IMHO.

There is a huge difference between forcing a company to pay for a service to their employees which violates their religious beliefs and which is not within their normal business services and forcing a company to offer their services equally without discrimination. If Hobby Lobby would not sell floral decorations to be used at a gay wedding, then they would be in violation of the law (in 15-20 states)
 
I have not read any pronouncements specific to vendors and same-sex unions.

From the definiation you posted, it would appear that there may be no problem with providing the food for a gay wedding as it would not incerase the liklihood of the sin being committed, does not have a relationship with the sin and does not impact the seriousness of the sin.
 
There is a huge difference between forcing a company to pay for a service to their employees which violates their religious beliefs and which is not within their normal business services and forcing a company to offer their services equally without discrimination. If Hobby Lobby would not sell floral decorations to be used at a gay wedding, then they would be in violation of the law (in 15-20 states)

Your original point was:

Indeed although in some states it is the law that businesses may not discriminate based on sexual orientation. Religious groups are exempt from those laws but private businesses are not. A business is not a religious entity even though the owner may be, and does not have the right to impose the owners religion (in this case by discrimination) onto the public.

IMHO the question is whether the law can force a person (and, by extension, per Hobby Lobby the companies owned by a person) to commit an act which his/her respective religious beliefs deem to be a "sin" (directly or indirectly).

In Hobby Lobby the Federal "law" said that "employers" (other than churches, per se, whether corporate or personal) must provide their employees with insurance that covers contraceptives and abortives.

The ruling which exempted Hobby Lobby as a business was on the basis of the business owners' "freedom to practice religion".

Therefore, it seems to me, that if the USSC were, on religious freedom grounds, to exempt persons from "participating" in same-sex union ceremonies, then Hobby Lobby precedent would seem to extend that exemption to such person's companies, as owners.

I believe that this is what the most definitely forthcoming legal action will determine.
 
From the definiation you posted, it would appear that there may be no problem with providing the food for a gay wedding as it would not incerase the liklihood of the sin being committed, does not have a relationship with the sin and does not impact the seriousness of the sin.


That is not the way I read it, but it is nebulous. I read it that for a "serious" sin which could impact the "common weal" the "physical" connection is more sensitive, for lack of a better term.

But this is for the Church to interpret, not you or me.
 
The ruling which exempted Hobby Lobby as a business was on the basis of the business owners' "freedom to practice religion".

Therefore, it seems to me, that if the USSC were, on religious freedom grounds, to exempt persons from "participating" in same-sex union ceremonies, then Hobby Lobby precedent would seem to extend that exemption to such person's companies, as owners.

I believe that this is what the most definitely forthcoming legal action will determine.

Hobby Lobby was not about the freedom to practice religion. It was about if the federal government was permitted to create a law which may violate religious beliefs. The reason the court voted the way they did was because of the "least restrictive means" test saying that the federal government could potentially offer subsidies for birth conrol outside of employment.

There is no precedent in that courts decision which would allow a service provider to not provide a service for a gay wedding in a state which says you may not discriminate based on sexual orientation.
 
I read the link. The link discusses what man perceives as antithetical for God. I agree God cannot create a rock too heavy for him to lift because within our concept of God, that would be logically inconsistent. However, I am not vain enough to believe my puny human brain can conceive what God truly believes is antithetical to him.

In the case at hand, I can conceive of a gay marriage, therefore, so can God. I am sure he has resolved any logical inconsistency this creates in your brain but I have faith that he has indeed resolved it.
 
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