this is only a little funny because you say this on a thread about the fda removing a treatment in favor of a prophlyactic (spelling)I'm not a conspiracy guy, but I think we need to be honest and ask some of these questions. Why do we consume a significantly disproportionate amount of prescription drugs than the rest of the industrialized world, but have a resulting unhealthier population? Why are we only one of two countries that allow DTC advertising of prescription drugs? We are clearly a consumption based pharma/healthcare economy and the economic incentives surely support that or else we wouldn't.
It's about results and we have an unhealthy population that is conditioned to treat health problems after years of neglect in many cases rather than pre-emptively. The numbers are the numbers....
do u have the prescription data by country (US disproportionate) youre talking about? is that total or %?